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What portion of early retirement was funded by primary surplus / cash buffers?
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What portion was funded by SBP dividend windfall transfers?
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What portion was funded by new market borrowing (and at what rates/maturities)?
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Net interest savings calculation methodology (not just a headline number).
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Rollover risk profile before/after (T-bills share, PIBs share, ATM by instrument).
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Any impact on reserve money / inflation channel (even a brief SBP note).
Without that, critics will keep filling the gap with conspiracy or cynicism.
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